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Agile, DevOps and DevSecOps

Complete Subject Question Bank (Dumps)

Introduction to Agile#1

________ is the process during which the changes of a system are implemented in a controllable manner by following a predefined model, with some reasonable modifications.

A
Change Management
B
Update Management
C
Modification Management

The source marks the correct answer as: Change Management.

Introduction to Agile#2

From the options select the configuration items that are eligible for configuration management

A
Source code document
B
Test Report
C
SRS
D
Design Document

The source marks the correct answer as: Source code document; Test Report; SRS; Design Document.

Introduction to Agile#3

Which is the software configuration concept that ensures that change should be done in a controlled and authorized environment

A
SVN
B
Audit
C
Baseline
D
Configuration database

The source marks the correct answer as: Baseline.

Introduction to Agile#4

Tom and Peter works on the same project. Tom does his work and update the local copy back to the configuration management server. This process is called as

A
Check-out
B
Check-in
C
Management
D
Baseline

The source marks the correct answer as: Check-in.

Introduction to Agile#5

____________ ensures that when two different people does the work and update parallelly, one should not over write the other

A
Synchronization control
B
Check-out
C
Baseline
D
Check-in

The source marks the correct answer as: Synchronization control.

Introduction to Agile#6

Collaborative and co-operative approach among all the stake holders is important. This is a feature of the _______________ Agile Methodology

A
Scrum
B
Dynamic system development method,
C
Lean Software Development
D
Collaborative and co-operative approach among all the stake holders is given importance in Dynamic system development method

The source marks the correct answer as: Dynamic system development method,.

Introduction to Agile#7

Which of these is not an agile methodology

A
DSDM
B
SPIRAL
C
SCRUM
D
CRYSTAL

The source marks the correct answer as: SPIRAL.

Introduction to Agile#8

Scrum divides the development into short cycles called as ______

A
Spiral Cycles
B
Sprint Cycles
C
Risk Cycles
D
Stable Cycles

The source marks the correct answer as: Sprint Cycles.

Introduction to Agile#9

________ methodology is useful when the client requirements are not clear and stable

A
Waterfall Methodology
B
Spiral Methodology
C
Prototype Methodology
D
Agile Methodology

The source marks the correct answer as: Agile Methodology.

Introduction to Agile#10

DSDM is iterative and incremental

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

Introduction to Agile#11

following: Which agile methodology divides the development into sprint cycles, in which a Specified set of features are delivered? Choose from the

A
Extreme programming
B
Lean Software Development
C
SCRUM

The source marks the correct answer as: SCRUM.

Introduction to Agile#12

What are the roles in dynamic system development method? Choose from the following:

A
Designer
B
System Analyst
C
Technical Coordinator
D
Scribe Facilitator

The source marks the correct answer as: Scribe Facilitator; Technical Coordinator.

Introduction to Agile#13

_____ methodology focus on visualization flow

A
Prototype
B
DSDM
C
Scrum
D
Kanban

The source marks the correct answer as: Kanban.

Introduction to Agile#14

State true or false. During agile development more emphasize is given for documentation

A
FALSE
B
TRUE

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

Introduction to Agile#15

__________ is an iterative and incremental approach that embraces principles of agile development, including continuous user/customer involvement.

A
Loop creation method
B
Static System Development Method
C
Increment Method
D
Dynamic System Development Method

The source marks the correct answer as: Dynamic System Development Method.

Introduction to Agile#16

Which of the following agile methodologies depends on the cohesiveness of the team and individual commitment of the team members?

A
SCRUM
B
Extreme programming
C
Lean Software Development
D
Feature Driven Development

The source marks the correct answer as: Lean Software Development.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#17

____ layer in busness analytics indicate what is happening or what has happened

A
Cognitive Layer
B
Predictive Layer
C
Descriptive Layer
D
Prescriptive Layer

The source marks the correct answer as: Descriptive Layer.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#18

An optimal solution is based on ___

A
Targets
B
Limits
C
Choices
D
Source

The source marks the correct answer as: Targets; Limits; Choices.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#19

____ layer describes what could happen

A
Prescriptive Layer
B
Cognitive Layer
C
Predictive Layer
D
Descriptive Layer

The source marks the correct answer as: Predictive Layer.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#20

_____ Allows decision makers at virtually all levels of the organization to gain insight into business performance and data to support and guide actions.

A
SCM
B
BPM
C
ERP
D
CRM

The source marks the correct answer as: BPM.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#21

Analytics reveal hidden patterns in _____

A
Solutions
B
Programs
C
Data
D
Functions

The source marks the correct answer as: Data.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#22

The challenge faced in Business Analytics are

A
Velocity of data
B
Integral data
C
Volume of data
D
Variety of data

The source marks the correct answer as: Volume of data; Variety of data; Velocity of data.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#23

_____ helps to uncover unexpected patterns and associations from all data within an organization

A
Predictive Layer
B
Prescriptive Layer
C
Descriptive Layer
D
Cognitive Layer

The source marks the correct answer as: Predictive Layer.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#24

______ is the Process of discovering various models, summaries and derived values from a given collection of data

A
Data Mart
B
Data Warehouse
C
Cube
D
Data Mining

The source marks the correct answer as: Data Mining.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#25

To understand the best course of action for a problem is ____

A
Cognitive Layer
B
Predictive Layer
C
Prescriptive Layer
D
Descriptive Layer

The source marks the correct answer as: Cognitive Layer.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#26

By working to plan an information agenda, master information, and apply Business Analytics, organizations can take advantage of the following areas

A
Source Control management
B
Information Management
C
ECM
D
Domain management

The source marks the correct answer as: Information Management; ECM.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#27

Which is not a KPI

A
Leading KPI
B
Process KPI
C
Input KPI
D
Effort KPI

The source marks the correct answer as: Effort KPI.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#28

_____ helps an organization to define and measure progress towards organizational goals.

A
BPM
B
ERP
C
CRM
D
KPI

The source marks the correct answer as: KPI.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#29

Which of these are attributes of performance measure

A
Relevant
B
Holistic
C
Strategic
D
Timely

The source marks the correct answer as: Strategic; Holistic; Relevant; Timely.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#30

Expand KSI

A
Key Success Initiative
B
Key Success Indicator
C
Key Success Index
D
Key Source Indicator

The source marks the correct answer as: Key Success Indicator.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#31

____ reflect the success or failure after an event has been consumed

A
Lagging KPI
B
Leading KPI
C
Input KPI
D
Process KPI

The source marks the correct answer as: Lagging KPI.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#32

A metric should be time bound

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#33

____ is an important measure of how well an organization meets or exceeds a customer's expectations

A
ERP
B
KPIs
C
Customer Satisfaction
D
CRM

The source marks the correct answer as: Customer Satisfaction.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#34

The most common form of KPI reporting is ____

A
Dashboarding
B
KPIs
C
CRM
D
ERP

The source marks the correct answer as: Dashboarding.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#35

_____ is the subject matter area on which reports revolve around.

A
Content
B
Documents
C
Books
D
Digital Files

The source marks the correct answer as: Content.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#36

Units per hour is an example of what KPI

A
Qualitative KPI
B
Outcome KPI
C
Quantitative KPI
D
Lagging KPI

The source marks the correct answer as: Quantitative KPI.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#37

Design Thinking is focusing on the stated problem than to arrive at a solution immediately

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#38

Which is not a phase in design thinking

A
Materialize
B
Understand
C
Model
D
Explore

The source marks the correct answer as: Model.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#39

Stating Your Users' Needs and Problems is done in which phase

A
Define
B
Ideate
C
Prototype
D
Empathize

The source marks the correct answer as: Define.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#40

Sub phases of understand phase is ___

A
Empathize
B
Ideate
C
Prototype
D
Define

The source marks the correct answer as: Empathize; Define.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#41

____ is an iterative process in which we understand the users clearly

A
Artificial Intelligence
B
Designing
C
Design Thinking
D
Machine Learning

The source marks the correct answer as: Design Thinking.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#42

_______in design thinking is a written, actionable statement that expresses the problem that the design team is trying to address.

A
POV
B
Ideate
C
Bodystorm
D
Empathy

The source marks the correct answer as: POV.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#43

Which of the following is mapped by an empath map

A
Feels
B
Says
C
Does
D
Thinks

The source marks the correct answer as: Says; Thinks; Does; Feels.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#44

Analyzing how users interact with their environment is a ____ activity in Empathize

A
Ideate
B
Engage
C
Immerse
D
Observer

The source marks the correct answer as: Observer.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#45

Researching Your Users' Needs is done in which phase

A
Define
B
Ideate
C
Prototype
D
Empathize

The source marks the correct answer as: Empathize.

Business Analytics and Design Thinking#46

Challenge Assumptions and Create Ideas is done in

A
Empathize
B
Define
C
Prototype
D
Ideate

The source marks the correct answer as: Ideate.

DevOps#47

Before DevOps, there is a significant delay between development and operations

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevOps#48

Which of the following CI/CD tools is a continuous integration server developed by Atlassian?

A
Bamboo
B
TeamCity
C
GitLab
D
Jenkins

The source marks the correct answer as: Bamboo.

DevOps#49

Which of the following CI/CD tools is known for its ease of setup, out-of-the-box usability, and beautiful user interface?

A
CircleCI
B
TeamCity
C
Jenkins
D
Bamboo

The source marks the correct answer as: TeamCity.

DevOps#50

In YAML file used for BitBucket pipeline, you can use different types of container for each step by selecting different images

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevOps#51

Which of the following is the final phase of the DevOps cycle?

A
Operate
B
Release
C
Deploy
D
Monitor

The source marks the correct answer as: Monitor.

DevOps#52

Which of the following CI/CD toolsprovides support for .Net framework?

A
TeamCity
B
Bamboo
C
GitLab
D
CircleCI

The source marks the correct answer as: TeamCity.

DevOps#53

Each service runs in its own process and communicates with other services through a well-defined interface in Microservices

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevOps#54

The applications with Azure CI/CD pipelines can be deployed to multiple target environments

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevOps#55

In which of the following pipelines, all the new changes run through a consistent set of quality checks?

A
GitLab pipeline
B
Azure pipeline
C
Bitbucket pipeline
D
AWS codpipeline

The source marks the correct answer as: AWS codpipeline.

DevOps#56

In which of the following, there is no human intervention and only a failed test will prevent a new change to be deployed to production?

A
Continuous monitoring
B
Continuous Deployment
C
Continuous Delivery
D
Continuous Integration

The source marks the correct answer as: Continuous Deployment.

DevOps#57

In GitLab, pipes are agents that run the CI/CD Jobs

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

DevOps#58

Pipe uses a script that lives in a Docker container

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevOps#59

In Continuous Integration, build status is reported to developers when they are changing the code.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevOps#60

Which of the following uses a version control system and a central code repository for tracking the code changes made by developers?

A
Continuous Deployment
B
Continuous Monitoring
C
Continuous Integration
D
Continuous Delivery

The source marks the correct answer as: Continuous Integration.

DevOps#61

Which of the following CI/CD tools is designed to handle anything from a simple CI server to a complete CD hub?

A
TeamCity
B
CircleCI
C
Jenkins
D
Bamboo

The source marks the correct answer as: Jenkins.

DevOps#62

You can either define the pipeline using YAML syntax or through the user interface in Azure pipeline

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevOps#63

The __________is used to record the code changes made by developers so that these changes can be shared to others

A
Change Control Board
B
Repository
C
Trello Board
D
Version control system

The source marks the correct answer as: Version control system.

DevOps#64

Which of the following are the services provided by Azure DevOps?

A
Azure Agents
B
Azure Repos
C
Azure Artifacts
D
Azure Boards

The source marks the correct answer as: Azure Boards; Azure Artifacts; Azure Repos.

DevOps#65

Which of the following CI/CD tools is suitable for small projects?

A
Bamboo
B
CircleCI
C
GitLab
D
TeamCity

The source marks the correct answer as: CircleCI.

DevOps#66

In _________, developed code is continuously delivered until the programmer considers it is ready to ship.

A
Continuous Integration
B
Continuous Delivery
C
Continuous Deployment
D
Continuous Monitoring

The source marks the correct answer as: Continuous Delivery.

DevSecOps#67

DevOps bridges the gap between development and operations teams.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#68

Which of the following is a a software development practice where members of a team use a version control system and frequently integrate their work to the same location like the main branch?

A
Continuous Delivery
B
Continuous Deployment
C
Continuous Integration
D
Continuous Monitoring

The source marks the correct answer as: Continuous Integration.

DevSecOps#69

A Blue/Green deployment is a deployment strategy in which you create two separate, but identical environments.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#70

With Continuous Delivery, production happens automatically without explicit approval.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

DevSecOps#71

CAMS Stands for Culture, Automation, _________ and ________.

A
Sharing
B
Motivation
C
Measurement
D
Standard

The source marks the correct answer as: Measurement; Sharing.

DevSecOps#72

In CAMS Model, ________ is all about monitoring and tracking the progress of various activities involved in the DevOps environment.

A
Automation
B
Sharing
C
Measurement
D
Culture

The source marks the correct answer as: Measurement.

DevSecOps#73

DevOps culture is about agility, scalability, continuous improvements in the delivery of services.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#74

Using a blue/green deployment strategy increases application availability and reduces deployment risk by simplifying the rollback process if a deployment fails.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#75

In the Blue/Green deployment, once testing has been completed on the blue environment, live application traffic is directed to the blue environment and the green environment is deprecated.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

DevSecOps#76

Which of the following refers to automatically releasing a developer’s changes from the repository to production, where it is usable by customers?

A
Continuous Deployment
B
Continuous Delivery
C
Continuous Monitoring
D
Continuous Integration

The source marks the correct answer as: Continuous Deployment.

DevSecOps#77

Which of the following are the Test Automation tools?

A
Vagrant
B
Terraform
C
Selenium
D
AWS CloudFormation

The source marks the correct answer as: Selenium.

DevSecOps#78

Replacing or modifying older apps with newer microservices architecture can open up the doors to faster development and quicker innovation.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#79

Which of the following are the Software Configuration Management tools?

A
CVS
B
Git
C
Docker
D
Ansible

The source marks the correct answer as: Git; CVS.

DevSecOps#80

Infrastructure-as-Code tools are used to create software environments using predefined templates.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#81

version tag.

A
________ is the first phase of the pipeline, where developers put in their code and then again the code goes to the version control system with a proper
B
Build phase
C
Deploy phase
D
Validate phase
E
Test phase

The source marks the correct answer as: Build phase.

DevSecOps#82

Which of the following phases in the CI/CD pipeline get all the features of that code from various branches of the repository, merge them and finally use a

A
compiler to compile it?
B
Testing phase
C
Validation phase
D
Deploy phase
E
Build phase

The source marks the correct answer as: Build phase.

DevSecOps#83

Unit Testing tests individual units or components of a code written by the developer to validate if they perform as expected.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#84

Which of the following are Infrastructure-As-Code tools?

A
SVN
B
Terraform
C
AWS CloudFormation
D
Kubernetes

The source marks the correct answer as: AWS CloudFormation; Terraform.

DevSecOps#85

_________ and ________ are CI/CD software that automates tasks starting from development pipeline to deployment.

A
Puppet
B
Bamboo
C
Jenkins
D
Vagrant

The source marks the correct answer as: Jenkins; Bamboo.

DevSecOps#86

An Elastic stack can be created to automatically monitor the application and logs.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#87

A _________ is an application security solution that can help to find certain vulnerabilities in web applications while they are running in production.

A
Container security
B
Software Composition Analysis
C
Static Analysis Security Testing
D
Dynamic Analysis Security Testing

The source marks the correct answer as: Dynamic Analysis Security Testing.

DevSecOps#88

Vulnerability Scanning ensures that code is checked for vulnerabilities at every major stage of the delivery pipeline from the time it is written to, when it is deployed into production.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#89

Use a SAST tool to ensure that your code is secure, safe, and reliable.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#90

Which of the following DevSecOps tools allows an All-in-One website security scanner to support developers to detect problems at the most advanced stage?

A
Codacy
B
Acunetix
C
GitLab
D
Aqua Security

The source marks the correct answer as: Acunetix.

DevSecOps#91

__________ refers to the process of tracking the identified vulnerabilities, the steps taken to mitigate and/or eliminate those vulnerabilities, and the overall status of the application’s security.

A
Monitor
B
Remediate
C
Analyze
D
Scan

The source marks the correct answer as: Monitor.

DevSecOps#92

_________ is an enterprise-grade automated code review solution that uses static code analysis to provide comprehensive vulnerability reporting.

A
Aqua Security
B
Acunetix
C
Codacy
D
SonarQube

The source marks the correct answer as: Codacy.

DevSecOps#93

_______ is a web-based DevOps program that gives a full CI/CD toolchain out-of-the-box in one particular application.

A
Aqua Security
B
Contrast Security
C
GitLab
D
Logz.io

The source marks the correct answer as: GitLab.

DevSecOps#94

Runtime protection means securing software against threats that can arise when your application starts running.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

DevSecOps#95

__________ provides a summary of possible attack scenarios, outlines the flow of sensitive data, and identifies vulnerabilities and offers potential mitigation options.

A
Scan
B
Threat Modeling
C
Monitor
D
Remediate

The source marks the correct answer as: Threat Modeling.

DevSecOps#96

___________ is an application security methodology for managing open source components.

A
Software Composition Analysis
B
Container security
C
Static Analysis Security Testing
D
Dynamic Analysis Security Testing

The source marks the correct answer as: Software Composition Analysis.

DevSecOps#97

DSOMM Level 1 calls for the execution of static analysis tools without any changes to the tools or settings.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#98

_________ is incorporated in the implementation phase of Secure SDLC.

A
Static Analysis
B
Dynamic Analysis
C
Security Monitoring/Compliance
D
OS Hardening, Web/Application Hardening

The source marks the correct answer as: Static Analysis.

DevSecOps#99

Which of the following are considered as the 4-Axes in DSOMM?

A
Collaboration
B
Static Depth
C
Intensity
D
Strategy

The source marks the correct answer as: Static Depth; Intensity.

DevSecOps#100

Security issues can be addressed in the SDLC pipeline well before deployment to production.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#101

During the development phase in secure SDLC, teams need to make sure that they use secure coding standards.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#102

Employing both SAST and DAST in a pipeline would cover both codebase and runtime vulnerabilities.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#103

Which of the following are the three critical areas focused by Security Monitoring/Compliance in Secure SDLC?

A
Shifting security left in the SDLC
B
Creating an audit trail throughout the development
C
Building security into policies
D
Hardening web applications

The source marks the correct answer as: Shifting security left in the SDLC; Building security into policies; Creating an audit trail throughout the development.

DevSecOps#104

DSOMM strives to incrementally increase the effectiveness of a security program from Level 1 to Level 4.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#105

Which of the following are the steps of Threat Modeling?

A
Mitigation
B
Usecase Modeling
C
Ranking Threats
D
Decomposing the application

The source marks the correct answer as: Decomposing the application; Ranking Threats; Mitigation.

DevSecOps#106

In which of the following phases of Secure SDLC, teams follow architecture and design guidelines to address risk?

A
Development
B
Requirement Analysis
C
Planning
D
Architecture And Design

The source marks the correct answer as: Architecture And Design.

DevSecOps#107

Which of the following are the Software Composition Analysis tools?

A
Aqua Security
B
Dependency Checker
C
Docker
D
WhiteSource

The source marks the correct answer as: WhiteSource; Dependency Checker.

DevSecOps#108

Bill Of Materials (BOM) describe the components included in applications, the version of the components used, and the license types for each.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#109

Any component that has the potential to adversely impact cyber supply-chain risk is a candidate for Component Analysis.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#110

SAC tools can both spot any security weak points and suggest potential solutions based on the entire code base.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#111

Implementing SCA ensures that all of the components in your applications are secure and compliant.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#112

__________is the process of identifying potential areas of risk from the use of third-party and open-source software and hardware components.

A
Configuration Management
B
Dynamic Analysis
C
Component Analysis
D
Static Analysis

The source marks the correct answer as: Component Analysis.

DevSecOps#113

Which of the following rules comes under comprehensive rulesets while embedding SAST tools into the pipeline?

A
Header injection
B
Weak encryption
C
XML external entity
D
Path manipulation

The source marks the correct answer as: XML external entity; Header injection.

DevSecOps#114

__________ is an approach to detect dependency bugs in build systems.

A
Smoke
B
Reshift
C
VeriBuild
D
Static code analyzer

The source marks the correct answer as: VeriBuild.

DevSecOps#115

SAST is performed at the static level ensuring¬ that code guidelines are followed without actually executing the application.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#116

Which of the following SAST tools is specifically built for NodeJS?

A
Veracode
B
Reshift
C
Klocwork
D
Checkmarx

The source marks the correct answer as: Reshift.

DevSecOps#117

Which of the following problems can be identified by using static analysis?

A
Violation of code style guidelines
B
Input/Output Validation
C
Dead or unused code
D
Code Coverage

The source marks the correct answer as: Dead or unused code; Violation of code style guidelines.

DevSecOps#118

________ is designed for optimizing the performance for analyzing typestate problem

A
Checkmarx
B
VeriBuild
C
Smoke
D
Static code analyzer

The source marks the correct answer as: Smoke.

DevSecOps#119

Static code analyzers help to define project specific rules to ensure that all developers follow them without any manual intervention or sidetracking.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#120

Which of the following SAST tools is designed for web applications?

A
Klocwork
B
Checkmarx
C
Veracode
D
HCL AppScan

The source marks the correct answer as: HCL AppScan.

DevSecOps#121

Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is also known as 'black box testing’.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

DevSecOps#122

SAST tools examine the source code at rest to detect and report on potential security vulnerabilities.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#123

In Push Based Configuration Management System, nodes pull the configuration information from the server.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

DevSecOps#124

You can also use Ansible Automation Platform for configuration management to maintain your systems in the desired state.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#125

Configuration drift occurs when ad-hoc configuration changes and updates result in a mismatched development, test, and deployment environments.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#126

___________ is a list of tasks that runs repeatedly in an order.

A
Playbook
B
Task
C
Role
D
Module

The source marks the correct answer as: Playbook.

DevSecOps#127

Which of the following is an open-source configuration management tool based on Python?

A
Chef
B
Vagrant
C
SaltStack
D
Puppet

The source marks the correct answer as: SaltStack.

DevSecOps#128

Ansible is an example of a pull based configuration management tool.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

DevSecOps#129

Which of the following services natively integrates Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) into the management platform?

A
Azure Resource Manager
B
CF Engine
C
Google Cloud Deployment Manager
D
AWS CloudFormation

The source marks the correct answer as: Azure Resource Manager.

DevSecOps#130

________ allows you to create “recipes” and “cookbooks” using its Ruby-based DSL.

A
Vagrant
B
Chef
C
Terraform
D
Puppet

The source marks the correct answer as: Chef.

DevSecOps#131

Ansible leverages SSH to communicate between servers.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#132

_________ are the components required to operate and manage enterprise IT environments.

A
Infrastructure
B
Module
C
Platform
D
Playbook

The source marks the correct answer as: Infrastructure.

DevSecOps#133

Vulnerability scanning tools can be used to identify specific local users and groups.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#134

ServerSpec lets you to include metadata about your compliance rules.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: False.

DevSecOps#135

______ is a set of security tools that can be used to validate compliance against a set of policies.

A
Inspec
B
ClientSpec
C
OpenSCAP
D
ServerSpec

The source marks the correct answer as: OpenSCAP.

DevSecOps#136

With Chef Automate, you can run your InSpec compliance tests on demand, see the results on the dashboard, and remediate the problem.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#137

InSpec tests can be easily added to act as a quality gate for compliance.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#138

Once you have categorized and prioritized vulnerabilities, break down your remediation process into bite-size chunks to make them more manageable and effective.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#139

InSpec can also run as a series of automated tests that execute as part of your standard release pipelines.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#140

Inspec uses a client-server model.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#141

Chef Automate is an integrated solution for managing and deploying infrastructure and applications.

A
True
B
False

The source marks the correct answer as: True.

DevSecOps#142

_________ was created to provide a standardized approach to maintain the security of systems.

A
Inspec
B
OpenSCAP
C
ClientSpec
D
ServerSpec

The source marks the correct answer as: OpenSCAP.

Key Topics to Study

Based on our question bank analysis, master these concepts to score high in Agile, DevOps and DevSecOps.

Preparation Tip

"Focus on understanding the logic behind pseudocode loops and selection statements, as they form the bulk of technical assessments."