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Agile & DevOps

Complete Subject Question Bank

01 Introduction To Agile#1

Which agile methodology divides the development into sprint cycles, in which a Specified set of features are delivered? Choose from the following:

A
SCRUM
B
Lean Software Development
C
Extreme programming

Scrum uses time-boxed sprints delivering a potentially shippable increment.

01 Introduction To Agile#2

What are the roles in dynamic system development method? Choose from the following:

A
System Analyst
B
Technical Coordinator
C
Designer
D
Scribe Facilitator

DSDM roles include Scribe Facilitator and Technical Coordinator among others.

01 Introduction To Agile#3

State true or false. During agile development more emphasize is given for documentation

A
FALSE
B
TRUE

Agile values working software over comprehensive documentation.

01 Introduction To Agile#4

Which of the following agile methodologies depends on the cohesiveness of the team and individual commitment of the team members?

A
Feature Driven Development
B
Lean Software Development
C
Extreme programming
D
SCRUM

XP relies on collective ownership and pair programming which demand strong individual commitment.

01 Introduction To Agile#5

_____ methodology focus on visualization fiow

A
Kanban
B
Prototype
C
DSDM
D
Scrum

Kanban visualises workflow on boards and limits WIP to improve flow.

01 Introduction To Agile#6

__________ is an iterative and incremental approach that embraces principles of agile development, including continuous user/customer involvement.

A
Dynamic System Development Method
B
Loop creation method
C
Increment Method
D
Static System Development Method

DSDM is an iterative, incremental agile method with continuous user involvement.

01 Introduction To Agile#7

________ is the process during which the changes of a system are implemented in a controllable manner by following a predefined model, with some reasonable modifications.

A
Change Management
B
Update Management
C
Modification Management

Change Management governs how changes are proposed, assessed, approved and implemented.

01 Introduction To Agile#8

the options select the configuration items that are eligible for configuration management

A
Test Report
B
Design Document
C
Source code document
D
SRS

All four — Test Report, Design Document, Source code, and SRS — are configuration items.

01 Introduction To Agile#9

Which is the software configuration concept that ensures that change should be done in a controlled and authorized environment

A
Configuration database
B
Audit
C
SVN
D
Baseline

A baseline is a formally approved version that changes only via controlled procedures.

01 Introduction To Agile#10

____________ ensures that when two different people does the work and update parallelly, one should not over write the other

A
Check-in
B
Check-out
C
Synchronization control
D
Baseline

Synchronization control manages concurrent edits and prevents overwrites.

01 Introduction To Agile#11

Tom and Peter works on the same project. Tom does his work and update the local copy back to the configuration management server. This process is called as

A
Check-out
B
Check-in
C
Baseline
D
Management

Check-in uploads local changes back to the version control server.

01 Introduction To Agile#12

Collaborative and co-operative approach among all the stake holders is important. This is a feature of the _______________ Agile Methodology

A
Scrum
B
Lean Software Development
C
Dynamic system development method

DSDM emphasises active user involvement and stakeholder collaboration.

01 Introduction To Agile#13

Which of these is not an agile methodology

A
DSDM
B
CRYSTAL
C
SCRUM
D
SPIRAL

The Spiral model is an SDLC model, not an Agile methodology.

01 Introduction To Agile#14

Scrum divides the development into short cycles called as ______

A
Spiral Cycles
B
Stable Cycles
C
Risk Cycles
D
Sprint Cycles

Scrum uses time-boxed Sprint Cycles.

01 Introduction To Agile#15

________ methodology is useful when the client requirements are not clear and stable

A
Waterfall Methodology
B
Agile Methodology
C
Spiral Methodology
D
Prototype Methodology

Agile accommodates evolving requirements through iterative delivery.

01 Introduction To Agile#16

DSDM is iterative and incremental

A
True
B
False

DSDM delivers in increments and iterates for refinement.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#17

_____ helps to uncover unexpected patterns and associations from all data within an organization

A
Data Mining
B
Predictive Analytics
C
Business Intelligence
D
Descriptive Analytics

Data Mining uncovers hidden patterns and associations across organisational data.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#18

To understand the best course of action for a problem is ____

A
Prescriptive Analytics
B
Predictive Analytics
C
Descriptive Analytics
D
Diagnostic Analytics

Prescriptive Analytics recommends the best course of action.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#19

______ is the Process of discovering various models, summaries and derived values from a given collection of data

A
Data Mining
B
Data Warehousing
C
Business Intelligence
D
ETL

Data Mining discovers models, summaries and derived values from data.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#20

Analytics reveal hidden patterns in _____

A
Data
B
Reports
C
Documents
D
Charts

Analytics reveal hidden patterns in data.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#21

____ layer in busness analytics indicate what is happening or what has happened

A
Descriptive Analytics
B
Predictive Analytics
C
Prescriptive Analytics
D
Diagnostic Analytics

Descriptive Analytics describes what is happening or has happened.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#22

In _____ Allows decision makers at virtually all levels of the organization to gain insight into business performance and data to support and guide actions.

A
Business Intelligence
B
Data Mining
C
Predictive Analytics
D
ERP

Business Intelligence provides insights to guide decisions at all levels.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#23

____ layer describes what could happen

A
Predictive Analytics
B
Descriptive Analytics
C
Prescriptive Analytics
D
Diagnostic Analytics

Predictive Analytics describes what could happen in the future.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#24

A metric should be time bound

A
True
B
False

A good metric is time-bound so progress can be measured within a defined period.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#25

____ is an important measure of how well an organization meets or exceeds a customer's expectations

A
Customer Satisfaction (CSAT)
B
Net Promoter Score
C
KPI
D
OKR

Customer Satisfaction (CSAT) measures how well an organisation meets customer expectations.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#26

_____ is the subject matter area on which reports revolve around.

A
Subject Area
B
Domain
C
Data Mart
D
Data Cube

A Subject Area defines the domain around which reports are built.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#27

The most common form of KPI reporting is ____

A
Dashboard
B
Spreadsheet
C
Email report
D
Verbal briefing

Dashboards are the most common KPI reporting format.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#28

Units per hour is an example of what KPI

A
Productivity KPI
B
Quality KPI
C
Financial KPI
D
Customer KPI

Units per hour measures productivity output.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#29

Which is not a KPI

A
Employee name
B
Revenue growth
C
Customer churn
D
Net Promoter Score

Employee name is a data attribute, not a performance indicator.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#30

_____ helps an organization to define and measure progress towards organizational goals.

A
KPI (Key Performance Indicator)
B
OKR
C
Balanced Scorecard
D
SMART Goal

KPIs help define and measure progress towards organisational goals.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#31

Expand KSI

A
Key Success Indicator
B
Key Strategy Index
C
Known Security Issue
D
Knowledge Systems Integration

KSI stands for Key Success Indicator.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#32

____ refiect the success or failure after an event has been consumed

A
Lagging Indicators
B
Leading Indicators
C
Predictive Indicators
D
KPIs

Lagging indicators reflect outcomes after an event has occurred.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#33

_______in design thinking is a written, actionable statement that expresses the problem that the design team is trying to address.

A
Point of View (POV) statement
B
Design Brief
C
Empathy Map
D
Persona

A Point of View (POV) statement captures the problem in an actionable form.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#34

Researching Your Users' Needs is done in which phase

A
Empathize
B
Define
C
Ideate
D
Prototype

The Empathize phase involves research to understand user needs.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#35

Challenge Assumptions and Create Ideas is done in

A
Ideate
B
Empathize
C
Define
D
Prototype

The Ideate phase challenges assumptions and generates ideas.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#36

Analyzing how users interact with their environment is a ____ activity in Empathize

A
Observation
B
Interview
C
Prototype
D
Testing

Observation of users in their environment is a core Empathize activity.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#37

Stating Your Users' Needs and Problems is done in which phase

A
Define
B
Empathize
C
Ideate
D
Test

The Define phase synthesises research into a clear problem statement.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#38

____ is an iterative process in which we understand the users clearly

A
Design Thinking
B
Agile
C
Lean
D
Scrum

Design Thinking is an iterative process centred on deeply understanding users.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#39

Which is not a phase in design thinking

A
Execution
B
Empathize
C
Define
D
Ideate

Execution is not a standard Design Thinking phase; the 5 phases are Empathize, Define, Ideate, Prototype, Test.

02 Business Analytics And Design Thinking#40

Design Thinking is focusing on the stated problem than to arrive at a solution immediately

A
True
B
False

Design Thinking deliberately avoids jumping to solutions — it first deeply understands the problem.

03 Devops#41

Pipe uses a script that lives in a Docker container

A
True
B
False

In Bitbucket Pipelines, each pipe is a Docker container containing a reusable script.

03 Devops#42

Which of the following CI/CD tools is designed to handle anything from a simple CI server to a complete CD hub?

A
Jenkins
B
GitLab CI
C
Bamboo
D
CircleCI

Jenkins is described as handling anything from a simple CI server to a complete CD hub.

03 Devops#43

Which of the following uses a version control system and a central code repository for tracking the code changes made by developers?

A
Continuous Integration
B
Continuous Delivery
C
Continuous Deployment
D
DevOps

Continuous Integration uses a VCS and central repository to track developer changes.

03 Devops#44

You can either define the pipeline using YAML syntax or through the user interface in Azure pipeline

A
True
B
False

Azure Pipelines supports both YAML-defined pipelines and the classic UI editor.

03 Devops#45

In GitLab, pipes are agents that run the CI/CD Jobs

A
False
B
True

In GitLab, Runners (not pipes) are the agents; pipes are reusable step templates. The statement is false.

03 Devops#46

Which of the following CI/CD tools is suitable for small projects?

A
Travis CI
B
Jenkins
C
GitLab CI
D
Bamboo

Travis CI is lightweight and popular for small/open-source projects.

03 Devops#47

In _________, developed code is continuously delivered until the programmer considers it is ready to ship.

A
Continuous Delivery
B
Continuous Integration
C
Continuous Deployment
D
Agile

Continuous Delivery keeps code deployable; the programmer decides when to ship.

03 Devops#48

The __________is used to record the code changes made by developers so that these changes can be shared to others

A
Version Control System
B
Issue Tracker
C
CI Server
D
Build Tool

A Version Control System (VCS) records all developer changes for sharing.

03 Devops#49

In Continuous Integration, build status is reported to developers when they are changing the code.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

CI pipelines report build status immediately as developers push code changes.

03 Devops#50

The applications with Azure CI/CD pipelines can be deployed to multiple target environments

A
True
B
False

Azure Pipelines supports multi-stage deployments to multiple environments.

03 Devops#51

In which of the following, there is no human intervention and only a failed test will prevent a new change to be deployed to production?

A
Continuous Deployment
B
Continuous Delivery
C
Continuous Integration
D
DevOps

Continuous Deployment automatically releases every passing change to production.

03 Devops#52

In YAML file used for BitBucket pipeline, you can use different types of container for each step by selecting different images

A
True
B
False

Bitbucket Pipelines YAML allows specifying a different Docker image per step.

03 Devops#53

Which of the following is the final phase of the DevOps cycle?

A
Monitor
B
Deploy
C
Operate
D
Plan

Monitoring is the final phase, feeding insights back to planning.

03 Devops#54

Which of the following CI/CD tools is a continuous integration server developed by Atlassian?

A
Bamboo
B
Jenkins
C
Travis CI
D
CircleCI

Bamboo is Atlassian's CI/CD server.

03 Devops#55

In which of the following pipelines, all the new changes run through a consistent set of quality checks?

A
Continuous Integration Pipeline
B
Deployment Pipeline
C
Release Pipeline
D
Build Pipeline

CI pipelines run every change through automated quality checks.

03 Devops#56

Each service runs in its own process and communicates with other services through a well-defined interface in Microservices

A
True
B
False

Microservices are independently deployable services communicating via APIs.

03 Devops#57

Which of the following CI/CD toolsprovides support for .Net framework?

A
Azure DevOps (Azure Pipelines)
B
Jenkins
C
Travis CI
D
CircleCI

Azure DevOps (Azure Pipelines) has native .NET Framework support.

03 Devops#58

Which of the following CI/CD tools is known for its ease of setup, out-of-the-box usability, and beautiful user interface?

A
CircleCI
B
Jenkins
C
Bamboo
D
Travis CI

CircleCI is known for ease of setup and a polished UI.

03 Devops#59

Before DevOps, there is a significant delay between development and operations

A
True
B
False

Before DevOps, dev and ops operated in silos causing deployment delays.

04 Devsecops#60

DevOps culture is about agility, scalability, continuous improvements in the delivery of services.

A
True
B
False

DevOps culture promotes agility, scalability, and continuous improvement.

04 Devsecops#61

In the Blue/Green deployment, once testing has been completed on the blue environment, live application trafic is directed to the blue environment and the green environment is deprecated.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

In Blue/Green, traffic switches to the new (green) environment; the old (blue) is deprecated.

04 Devsecops#62

Using a blue/green deployment strategy increases application availability and reduces deployment risk by simplifying the rollback process if a deployment fails.

A
True
B
False

Blue/Green deployments enable instant rollback by switching traffic back.

04 Devsecops#63

DevOps bridges the gap between development and operations teams.

A
True
B
False

DevOps integrates development and operations workflows to speed delivery.

04 Devsecops#64

With Continuous Delivery, production happens automatically without explicit approval.

A
False
B
True

Continuous Delivery requires manual approval to release; Continuous Deployment is automatic.

04 Devsecops#65

A Blue/Green deployment is a deployment strategy in which you create two separate, but identical environments.

A
True
B
False

Blue/Green uses two identical environments to minimise downtime.

04 Devsecops#66

An Elastic stack can be created to automatically monitor the application and logs.

A
True
B
False

The ELK/Elastic stack centralises log collection and application monitoring.

04 Devsecops#67

Unit Testing tests individual units or components of a code written by the developer to validate if they perform as expected.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Unit tests verify individual functions or components in isolation.

04 Devsecops#68

Infrastructure-as-Code tools are used to create software environments using predefined templates.

A
True
B
False

IaC tools (Terraform, Ansible) provision infrastructure from code templates.

04 Devsecops#69

Replacing or modifying older apps with newer microservices architecture can open up the doors to faster development and quicker innovation.

A
True
B
False

Microservices decompose monoliths enabling independent deployment and faster delivery.

04 Devsecops#70

Runtime protection means securing software against threats that can arise when your application starts running.

A
True
B
False

Runtime protection addresses threats at execution time, e.g., RASP.

04 Devsecops#71

Use a SAST tool to ensure that your code is secure, safe, and reliable.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

SAST tools analyse source code statically to find security vulnerabilities.

04 Devsecops#72

Vulnerability Scanning ensures that code is checked for vulnerabilities at every major stage of the delivery pipeline from the time it is written to, when it is deployed into production.

A
True
B
False

Continuous vulnerability scanning catches issues throughout the SDLC pipeline.

04 Devsecops#73

Employing both SAST and DAST in a pipeline would cover both codebase and runtime vulnerabilities.

A
True
B
False

SAST covers static code; DAST covers runtime — together they give broader coverage.

04 Devsecops#74

DSOMM strives to incrementally increase the effectiveness of a security program from Level 1 to Level 4.

A
True
B
False

DSOMM (DevSecOps Maturity Model) defines four maturity levels.

04 Devsecops#75

DSOMM Level 1 calls for the execution of static analysis tools without any changes to the tools or settings.

A
True
B
False

DSOMM Level 1 is basic: run default static analysis tools unchanged.

04 Devsecops#76

During the development phase in secure SDLC, teams need to make sure that they use secure coding standards.

A
True
B
False

Secure coding standards reduce vulnerabilities introduced during development.

04 Devsecops#77

Security issues can be addressed in the SDLC pipeline well before deployment to production.

A
True
B
False

Shifting security left means catching issues early in the pipeline.

04 Devsecops#78

Implementing SCA ensures that all of the components in your applications are secure and compliant.

A
True
B
False

Software Composition Analysis (SCA) checks open-source components for known vulnerabilities.

04 Devsecops#79

SAC tools can both spot any security weak points and suggest potential solutions based on the entire code base.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Static Analysis Code (SAC) tools detect and suggest fixes for code vulnerabilities.

04 Devsecops#80

Any component that has the potential to adversely impact cyber supply-chain risk is a candidate for Component Analysis.

A
True
B
False

Component Analysis assesses supply-chain risk from third-party dependencies.

04 Devsecops#81

Bill Of Materials (BOM) describe the components included in applications, the version of the components used, and the license types for each.

A
True
B
False

A Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) inventories components, versions, and licenses.

04 Devsecops#82

SAST is performed at the static level ensuring that code guidelines are followed without actually executing the application.

A
True
B
False

SAST analyses source code without running it — white-box testing.

04 Devsecops#83

SAST tools examine the source code at rest to detect and report on potential security vulnerabilities.

A
True
B
False

SAST tools scan source code statically to detect security flaws.

04 Devsecops#84

Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is also known as 'black box testing.

A
False
B
True

SAST is 'white-box' testing (code visible); DAST is 'black-box' testing.

04 Devsecops#85

Static code analyzers help to define project specific rules to ensure that all developers follow them without any manual intervention or sidetracking.

A
True
B
False

Static analysers enforce coding rules automatically across the team.

04 Devsecops#86

Ansible leverages SSH to communicate between servers.

A
True
B
False

Ansible uses SSH (agentless) to connect to and configure remote servers.

04 Devsecops#87

Ansible is an example of a pull based configuration management tool.

A
False
B
True

Ansible is push-based — it pushes configs to nodes over SSH.

04 Devsecops#88

You can also use Ansible Automation Platform for configuration management to maintain your systems in the desired state.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Ansible Automation Platform supports full configuration management.

04 Devsecops#89

Configuration drift occurs when ad-hoc configuration changes and updates result in a mismatched development, test, and deployment environments.

A
True
B
False

Configuration drift happens when environments diverge from their intended state.

04 Devsecops#90

In Push Based Configuration Management System, nodes pull the configuration information from the server.

A
False
B
True

In push-based systems, the server pushes configs to nodes — nodes do NOT pull.

04 Devsecops#91

InSpec can also run as a series of automated tests that execute as part of your standard release pipelines.

A
True
B
False

InSpec integrates into CI/CD pipelines as automated compliance tests.

04 Devsecops#92

Once you have categorized and prioritized vulnerabilities, break down your remediation process into bite-size chunks to make them more manageable and effective.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Breaking remediation into manageable pieces improves focus and progress.

04 Devsecops#93

Chef Automate is an integrated solution for managing and deploying infrastructure and applications.

A
True
B
False

Chef Automate provides a unified platform for infrastructure and app management.

04 Devsecops#94

In Inspec uses a client-server model.

A
False
B
True

InSpec is agentless and does not use a client-server model.

04 Devsecops#95

InSpec tests can be easily added to act as a quality gate for compliance.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

InSpec tests can gate pipelines to enforce compliance requirements.

04 Devsecops#96

With Chef Automate, you can run your InSpec compliance tests on demand, see the results on the dashboard, and remediate the problem.

A
True
B
False

Chef Automate provides on-demand InSpec scanning with dashboard results.

04 Devsecops#97

ServerSpec lets you to include metadata about your compliance rules.

A
False
B
True

InSpec (not ServerSpec) supports rich metadata in compliance profiles.

04 Devsecops#98

Vulnerability scanning tools can be used to identify specific local users and groups.

A
True
B
False

Vulnerability scanners can enumerate local accounts as part of their checks.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#99

_____ helps to uncover unexpected patterns and associations from all data within an organization

A
Data Mining
B
Predictive Analytics
C
Business Intelligence
D
Descriptive Analytics

Data Mining uncovers hidden patterns and associations across organisational data.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#100

______ is the Process of discovering various models, summaries and derived values from a given collection of data

A
Data Mining
B
Data Warehousing
C
Business Intelligence
D
ETL

Data Mining discovers models, summaries and derived values from data.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#101

To understand the best course of action for a problem is ____

A
Prescriptive Analytics
B
Predictive Analytics
C
Descriptive Analytics
D
Diagnostic Analytics

Prescriptive Analytics recommends the best course of action.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#102

____ layer describes what could happen

A
Predictive Analytics
B
Descriptive Analytics
C
Prescriptive Analytics
D
Diagnostic Analytics

Predictive Analytics describes what could happen in the future.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#103

Analytics reveal hidden patterns in _____

A
Data
B
Reports
C
Documents
D
Charts

Analytics reveal hidden patterns in data.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#104

____ layer in busness analytics indicate what is happening or what has happened

A
Descriptive Analytics
B
Predictive Analytics
C
Prescriptive Analytics
D
Diagnostic Analytics

Descriptive Analytics describes what is happening or has happened.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#105

_____ Allows decision makers at virtually all levels of the organization to gain insight into business performance and data to support and guide actions.

A
Business Intelligence
B
Data Mining
C
Predictive Analytics
D
ERP

Business Intelligence provides insights to guide decisions at all levels.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#106

A metric should be time bound

A
True
B
False

A good metric is time-bound so progress can be measured within a defined period.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#107

____ is an important measure of how well an organization meets or exceeds a customer's expectations

A
Customer Satisfaction (CSAT)
B
Net Promoter Score
C
KPI
D
OKR

Customer Satisfaction (CSAT) measures how well an organisation meets customer expectations.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#108

Units per hour is an example of what KPI

A
Productivity KPI
B
Quality KPI
C
Financial KPI
D
Customer KPI

Units per hour measures productivity output.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#109

_____ is the subject matter area on which reports revolve around.

A
Subject Area
B
Domain
C
Data Mart
D
Data Cube

A Subject Area defines the domain around which reports are built.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#110

The most common form of KPI reporting is ____

A
Dashboard
B
Spreadsheet
C
Email report
D
Verbal briefing

Dashboards are the most common KPI reporting format.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#111

Which is not a KPI

A
Employee name
B
Revenue growth
C
Customer churn
D
Net Promoter Score

Employee name is a data attribute, not a performance indicator.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#112

_____ helps an organization to define and measure progress towards organizational goals.

A
KPI (Key Performance Indicator)
B
OKR
C
Balanced Scorecard
D
SMART Goal

KPIs help define and measure progress towards organisational goals.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#113

____ reflect the success or failure after an event has been consumed

A
Lagging Indicators
B
Leading Indicators
C
Predictive Indicators
D
KPIs

Lagging indicators reflect outcomes after an event has occurred.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#114

Expand KSI

A
Key Success Indicator
B
Key Strategy Index
C
Known Security Issue
D
Knowledge Systems Integration

KSI stands for Key Success Indicator.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#115

Challenge Assumptions and Create Ideas is done in

A
Ideate
B
Empathize
C
Define
D
Prototype

The Ideate phase challenges assumptions and generates ideas.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#116

Analyzing how users interact with their environment is a ____ activity in Empathize

A
Observation
B
Interview
C
Prototype
D
Testing

Observation of users in their environment is a core Empathize activity.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#117

Researching Your Users' Needs is done in which phase

A
Empathize
B
Define
C
Ideate
D
Prototype

The Empathize phase involves research to understand user needs.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#118

_______in design thinking is a written, actionable statement that expresses the problem that the design team is trying to address.

A
Point of View (POV) statement
B
Design Brief
C
Empathy Map
D
Persona

A Point of View (POV) statement captures the problem in an actionable form.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#119

Stating Your Users' Needs and Problems is done in which phase

A
Define
B
Empathize
C
Ideate
D
Test

The Define phase synthesises research into a clear problem statement.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#120

____ is an iterative process in which we understand the users clearly

A
Design Thinking
B
Agile
C
Lean
D
Scrum

Design Thinking is an iterative process centred on deeply understanding users.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#121

Which is not a phase in design thinking

A
Execution
B
Empathize
C
Define
D
Ideate

Execution is not a standard Design Thinking phase; the 5 phases are Empathize, Define, Ideate, Prototype, Test.

Business Analytics And Design Thinking#122

Design Thinking is focusing on the stated problem than to arrive at a solution immediately

A
True
B
False

Design Thinking deliberately avoids jumping to solutions — it first deeply understands the problem.

Devops#123

In GitLab, pipes are agents that run the CI/CD Jobs

A
False
B
True

In GitLab, Runners (not pipes) are the agents; pipes are reusable step templates. The statement is false.

Devops#124

You can either define the pipeline using YAML syntax or through the user interface in Azure pipeline

A
True
B
False

Azure Pipelines supports both YAML-defined pipelines and the classic UI editor.

Devops#125

Pipe uses a script that lives in a Docker container

A
True
B
False

In Bitbucket Pipelines, each pipe is a Docker container containing a reusable script.

Devops#126

Which of the following CI/CD tools is designed to handle anything from a simple CI server to a complete CD hub?

A
Jenkins
B
GitLab CI
C
Bamboo
D
CircleCI

Jenkins is described as handling anything from a simple CI server to a complete CD hub.

Devops#127

The __________is used to record the code changes made by developers so that these changes can be shared to others

A
Version Control System
B
Issue Tracker
C
CI Server
D
Build Tool

A Version Control System (VCS) records all developer changes for sharing.

Devops#128

In _________, developed code is continuously delivered until the programmer considers it is ready to ship.

A
Continuous Delivery
B
Continuous Integration
C
Continuous Deployment
D
Agile

Continuous Delivery keeps code deployable; the programmer decides when to ship.

Devops#129

Which of the following uses a version control system and a central code repository for tracking the code changes made by developers?

A
Continuous Integration
B
Continuous Delivery
C
Continuous Deployment
D
DevOps

Continuous Integration uses a VCS and central repository to track developer changes.

Devops#130

In Continuous Integration, build status is reported to developers when they are changing the code.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

CI pipelines report build status immediately as developers push code changes.

Devops#131

Which of the following CI/CD tools is suitable for small projects?

A
Travis CI
B
Jenkins
C
GitLab CI
D
Bamboo

Travis CI is lightweight and popular for small/open-source projects.

Devops#132

In which of the following, there is no human intervention and only a failed test will prevent a new change to be deployed to production?

A
Continuous Deployment
B
Continuous Delivery
C
Continuous Integration
D
DevOps

Continuous Deployment automatically releases every passing change to production.

Devops#133

Which of the following is the final phase of the DevOps cycle?

A
Monitor
B
Deploy
C
Operate
D
Plan

Monitoring is the final phase, feeding insights back to planning.

Devops#134

In YAML file used for BitBucket pipeline, you can use different types of container for each step by selecting different images

A
True
B
False

Bitbucket Pipelines YAML allows specifying a different Docker image per step.

Devops#135

Which of the following CI/CD tools is a continuous integration server developed by Atlassian?

A
Bamboo
B
Jenkins
C
Travis CI
D
CircleCI

Bamboo is Atlassian's CI/CD server.

Devops#136

Which of the following CI/CD tools is known for its ease of setup, out-of-the-box usability, and beautiful user interface?

A
CircleCI
B
Jenkins
C
Bamboo
D
Travis CI

CircleCI is known for ease of setup and a polished UI.

Devops#137

Before DevOps, there is a significant delay between development and operations

A
True
B
False

Before DevOps, dev and ops operated in silos causing deployment delays.

Devops#138

The applications with Azure CI/CD pipelines can be deployed to multiple target environments

A
True
B
False

Azure Pipelines supports multi-stage deployments to multiple environments.

Devops#139

In which of the following pipelines, all the new changes run through a consistent set of quality checks?

A
Continuous Integration Pipeline
B
Deployment Pipeline
C
Release Pipeline
D
Build Pipeline

CI pipelines run every change through automated quality checks.

Devops#140

Each service runs in its own process and communicates with other services through a well-defined interface in Microservices

A
True
B
False

Microservices are independently deployable services communicating via APIs.

Devops#141

Which of the following CI/CD toolsprovides support for .Net framework?

A
Azure DevOps (Azure Pipelines)
B
Jenkins
C
Travis CI
D
CircleCI

Azure DevOps (Azure Pipelines) has native .NET Framework support.

Devsecops#142

Using a blue/green deployment strategy increases application availability and reduces deployment risk by simplifying the rollback process if a deployment fails.

A
True
B
False

Blue/Green deployments enable instant rollback by switching traffic back.

Devsecops#143

In the Blue/Green deployment, once testing has been completed on the blue environment, live application traffic is directed to the blue environment and the green environment is deprecated.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

In Blue/Green, traffic switches to the new (green) environment; the old (blue) is deprecated.

Devsecops#144

DevOps culture is about agility, scalability, continuous improvements in the delivery of services.

A
True
B
False

DevOps culture promotes agility, scalability, and continuous improvement.

Devsecops#145

With Continuous Delivery, production happens automatically without explicit approval.

A
False
B
True

Continuous Delivery requires manual approval to release; Continuous Deployment is automatic.

Devsecops#146

A Blue/Green deployment is a deployment strategy in which you create two separate, but identical environments.

A
True
B
False

Blue/Green uses two identical environments to minimise downtime.

Devsecops#147

DevOps bridges the gap between development and operations teams.

A
True
B
False

DevOps integrates development and operations workflows to speed delivery.

Devsecops#148

Unit Testing tests individual units or components of a code written by the developer to validate if they perform as expected.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Unit tests verify individual functions or components in isolation.

Devsecops#149

An Elastic stack can be created to automatically monitor the application and logs.

A
True
B
False

The ELK/Elastic stack centralises log collection and application monitoring.

Devsecops#150

Infrastructure-as-Code tools are used to create software environments using predefined templates.

A
True
B
False

IaC tools (Terraform, Ansible) provision infrastructure from code templates.

Devsecops#151

Replacing or modifying older apps with newer microservices architecture can open up the doors to faster development and quicker innovation.

A
True
B
False

Microservices decompose monoliths enabling independent deployment and faster delivery.

Devsecops#152

Runtime protection means securing software against threats that can arise when your application starts running.

A
True
B
False

Runtime protection addresses threats at execution time, e.g., RASP.

Devsecops#153

Use a SAST tool to ensure that your code is secure, safe, and reliable.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

SAST tools analyse source code statically to find security vulnerabilities.

Devsecops#154

Vulnerability Scanning ensures that code is checked for vulnerabilities at every major stage of the delivery pipeline from the time it is written to, when it is deployed into production.

A
True
B
False

Continuous vulnerability scanning catches issues throughout the SDLC pipeline.

Devsecops#155

DSOMM strives to incrementally increase the effectiveness of a security program from Level 1 to Level 4.

A
True
B
False

DSOMM (DevSecOps Maturity Model) defines four maturity levels.

Devsecops#156

Employing both SAST and DAST in a pipeline would cover both codebase and runtime vulnerabilities.

A
True
B
False

SAST covers static code; DAST covers runtime — together they give broader coverage.

Devsecops#157

Security issues can be addressed in the SDLC pipeline well before deployment to production.

A
True
B
False

Shifting security left means catching issues early in the pipeline.

Devsecops#158

During the development phase in secure SDLC, teams need to make sure that they use secure coding standards.

A
True
B
False

Secure coding standards reduce vulnerabilities introduced during development.

Devsecops#159

DSOMM Level 1 calls for the execution of static analysis tools without any changes to the tools or settings.

A
True
B
False

DSOMM Level 1 is basic: run default static analysis tools unchanged.

Devsecops#160

SAC tools can both spot any security weak points and suggest potential solutions based on the entire code base.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Static Analysis Code (SAC) tools detect and suggest fixes for code vulnerabilities.

Devsecops#161

Implementing SCA ensures that all of the components in your applications are secure and compliant.

A
True
B
False

Software Composition Analysis (SCA) checks open-source components for known vulnerabilities.

Devsecops#162

Bill Of Materials (BOM) describe the components included in applications, the version of the components used, and the license types for each.

A
True
B
False

A Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) inventories components, versions, and licenses.

Devsecops#163

Any component that has the potential to adversely impact cyber supply-chain risk is a candidate for Component Analysis.

A
True
B
False

Component Analysis assesses supply-chain risk from third-party dependencies.

Devsecops#164

Static code analyzers help to define project specific rules to ensure that all developers follow them without any manual intervention or sidetracking.

A
True
B
False

Static analysers enforce coding rules automatically across the team.

Devsecops#165

Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is also known as 'black box testing.

A
False
B
True

SAST is 'white-box' testing (code visible); DAST is 'black-box' testing.

Devsecops#166

SAST tools examine the source code at rest to detect and report on potential security vulnerabilities.

A
True
B
False

SAST tools scan source code statically to detect security flaws.

Devsecops#167

SAST is performed at the static level ensuring that code guidelines are followed without actually executing the application.

A
True
B
False

SAST analyses source code without running it — white-box testing.

Devsecops#168

Ansible leverages SSH to communicate between servers.

A
True
B
False

Ansible uses SSH (agentless) to connect to and configure remote servers.

Devsecops#169

Ansible is an example of a pull based configuration management tool.

A
False
B
True

Ansible is push-based — it pushes configs to nodes over SSH.

Devsecops#170

You can also use Ansible Automation Platform for configuration management to maintain your systems in the desired state.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Ansible Automation Platform supports full configuration management.

Devsecops#171

In Push Based Configuration Management System, nodes pull the configuration information from the server.

A
False
B
True

In push-based systems, the server pushes configs to nodes — nodes do NOT pull.

Devsecops#172

Configuration drift occurs when ad-hoc configuration changes and updates result in a mismatched development, test, and deployment environments.

A
True
B
False

Configuration drift happens when environments diverge from their intended state.

Devsecops#173

Chef Automate is an integrated solution for managing and deploying infrastructure and applications.

A
True
B
False

Chef Automate provides a unified platform for infrastructure and app management.

Devsecops#174

InSpec can also run as a series of automated tests that execute as part of your standard release pipelines.

A
True
B
False

InSpec integrates into CI/CD pipelines as automated compliance tests.

Devsecops#175

Once you have categorized and prioritized vulnerabilities, break down your remediation process into bite- size chunks to make them more manageable and effective.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Breaking remediation into manageable pieces improves focus and progress.

Devsecops#176

Inspec uses a client-server model.

A
False
B
True

InSpec is agentless and does not use a client-server model.

Devsecops#177

ServerSpec lets you to include metadata about your compliance rules.

A
False
B
True

InSpec (not ServerSpec) supports rich metadata in compliance profiles.

Devsecops#178

With Chef Automate, you can run your InSpec compliance tests on demand, see the results on the dashboard, and remediate the problem.

A
True
B
False

Chef Automate provides on-demand InSpec scanning with dashboard results.

Devsecops#179

Vulnerability scanning tools can be used to identify specific local users and groups.

A
True
B
False

Vulnerability scanners can enumerate local accounts as part of their checks.

Devsecops#180

InSpec tests can be easily added to act as a quality gate for compliance.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

InSpec tests can gate pipelines to enforce compliance requirements.

General#181

State true or false. During agile development more emphasis is given for documentation.

A
TRUE
B
FALSE

Agile values working software over comprehensive documentation.

General#182

Which agile methodology divides the development into sprint cycles, in which a specified set of features are delivered?

A
Extreme Programming
B
SCRUM
C
Lean Software Development

Scrum uses time-boxed sprints delivering a potentially shippable increment.

General#183

Which of these is NOT an Agile methodology?

A
DSDM
B
CRYSTAL
C
SCRUM
D
SPIRAL

The Spiral model is an SDLC model, not an Agile methodology.

General#184

Scrum divides the development into short cycles called as ______.

A
Sprint Cycles
B
Stable Cycles
C
Spiral Cycles
D
Risk Cycles

Scrum uses time-boxed Sprint Cycles.

General#185

Which methodology focuses on visualizing flow?

A
Scrum
B
DSDM
C
Prototype
D
Kanban

Kanban visualises workflow on boards and limits WIP to improve flow.

General#186

DSDM is iterative and incremental.

A
True
B
False

DSDM delivers in increments and iterates for refinement.

General#187

Collaborative and co-operative approach among all stakeholders is a feature of which Agile methodology?

A
Scrum
B
Dynamic System Development Method
C
Lean Software Development

DSDM emphasises active user involvement and stakeholder collaboration.

General#188

Which agile methodology depends most on team cohesiveness and individual commitment?

A
Lean Software Development
B
Feature Driven Development
C
Extreme Programming
D
SCRUM

XP relies on practices like pair programming and collective ownership that need strong team commitment.

General#189

_____ methodology is useful when the client requirements are not clear and stable.

A
Agile Methodology
B
Spiral Methodology
C
Waterfall Methodology
D
Prototype Methodology

Agile accommodates evolving requirements through iterative delivery.

General#190

Which statement best reflects the Agile Manifesto?

A
Processes and tools over individuals and interactions
B
Comprehensive documentation over working software
C
Contract negotiation over customer collaboration
D
Responding to change over following a plan

Agile values responding to change over following a plan.

General#191

Who is responsible for maximizing product value in Scrum?

A
Scrum Master
B
Product Owner
C
Development Team

The Product Owner owns the Product Backlog and maximizes value.

General#192

Which event inspects the Increment and adapts the Product Backlog?

A
Sprint Planning
B
Daily Scrum
C
Sprint Review
D
Sprint Retrospective

Sprint Review is for inspecting the increment and adapting the backlog with stakeholders.

General#193

Time-box of the Daily Scrum is:

A
15 minutes
B
30 minutes
C
1 hour
D
As long as needed

Daily Scrum is a focused 15-minute event.

General#194

Definition of Done (DoD) ensures:

A
Work meets agreed quality and is releasable
B
Team velocity increases
C
Scope never changes
D
Stakeholders attend daily

DoD is a shared understanding of completion and quality.

General#195

A Product Backlog item should follow INVEST. What does I stand for?

A
Independent
B
Iterative
C
Integrated
D
Immediate

INVEST: Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable.

General#196

Velocity in Scrum is:

A
Story points completed per sprint
B
Lines of code per day
C
Bugs fixed per release
D
Team size

Velocity tracks completed story points to aid forecasting.

General#197

Which chart shows remaining work against time in a sprint?

A
Burnup chart
B
Burndown chart
C
Gantt chart
D
Control chart

Burndown shows remaining work; burnup shows scope done vs total.

General#198

During Sprint Planning, the team commits to:

A
Scope that never changes
B
A Sprint Goal and selected items
C
Fixed dates for release
D
All items requested by stakeholders

Sprint Planning creates a Sprint Goal and selects PBI to meet it.

General#199

Who removes impediments in Scrum?

A
Product Owner
B
Scrum Master
C
Stakeholders
D
Architect

Scrum Master serves the team by removing impediments.

General#200

Backlog prioritization technique often used in Agile:

A
MoSCoW
B
PERT
C
CPM
D
DFMEA

MoSCoW: Must, Should, Could, Won’t.

General#201

Which practice is core to Extreme Programming?

A
Pair programming
B
Stage-gate reviews
C
Critical path planning
D
Earned value

XP emphasizes pair programming, TDD, CI, simple design.

General#202

Lean Software Development focuses primarily on:

A
Maximizing utilization
B
Eliminating waste and delivering value
C
Freezing requirements
D
Sequential phases

Lean aims to remove waste and amplify learning to deliver value faster.

General#203

Kanban limits WIP to:

A
Increase multitasking
B
Improve flow and reduce cycle time
C
Force overtime
D
Match story points

WIP limits reduce context switching and reveal bottlenecks.

General#204

DSDM prioritization uses:

A
Kano model
B
MoSCoW
C
WSJF
D
RICE

DSDM popularized MoSCoW prioritization.

General#205

Crystal methodology adapts based on:

A
Team color preference
B
Project size and criticality
C
Programming language
D
Office layout

Crystal variants (Clear, Orange, etc.) depend on team size & criticality.

General#206

Feature-Driven Development (FDD) emphasizes:

A
Feature lists and model-driven design
B
Heavy upfront docs
C
No iterations
D
Pair programming only

FDD builds by feature with strong modeling upfront.

General#207

In XP, TDD stands for:

A
Team-Driven Design
B
Test-Driven Development
C
Technical Design Document
D
Time-Boxed Development

Write tests first, then code to make them pass.

General#208

Continuous Integration helps to:

A
Make large batch merges
B
Detect integration problems early
C
Eliminate testing
D
Replace code reviews

CI integrates changes frequently, catching issues sooner.

General#209

Kanban board typical columns are:

A
Not Started – Doing – Done
B
Design – Build – Test – Release only
C
Open – Closed only
D
Backlog – Backlog – Backlog

Boards visualize workflow; exact columns can vary.

General#210

Lean concept “Build quality in” means:

A
Rely on end-stage testing
B
Prevent defects early via practices
C
Skip code reviews
D
Add more documentation

Quality is built into the process via automation, TDD, and standards.

General#211

A good User Story format is:

A
As a <role>, I want <goal> so that <benefit>
B
Given-When-Then
C
Problem-Solution
D
If-Else

That template captures role, goal, and value. Acceptance criteria often use GWT.

General#212

Story points measure:

A
Hours
B
Complexity/effort relative size
C
Team size
D
LOC

Points are relative estimates of effort/complexity, not time.

General#213

Planning Poker is used for:

A
Release planning only
B
Relative estimation by team
C
Risk management only
D
Daily Scrum

Team members estimate using cards to reach consensus.

General#214

Timeboxing means:

A
Fixed scope, flexible time
B
Fixed time, flexible scope
C
Unlimited scope and time
D
Only testing time fixed

Agile fixes time (sprint), adjusts scope to meet goals.

General#215

Spikes are used to:

A
Deliver UI only
B
Prototype/research to reduce uncertainty
C
Replace testing
D
Handle HR issues

Spikes explore solutions or risks to inform future work.

General#216

Which is best when requirements are unclear?

A
Waterfall
B
Agile
C
Big Design Up Front only
D
Code-and-fix

Agile iterative approach welcomes changing requirements.

General#217

Risk-driven model primarily associated with:

A
Scrum
B
Spiral
C
XP
D
Kanban

Spiral iterates through risk identification and mitigation.

General#218

Minimum Viable Product (MVP) focuses on:

A
All features at once
B
Minimum set to validate learning
C
Only backend
D
Aesthetics only

MVP tests assumptions with least effort to gather feedback.

General#219

Definition of Ready (DoR) ensures:

A
Item is clear enough to start
B
Item is fully tested
C
Item is released
D
Item has UI only

DoR ensures PBIs are actionable (clear, estimated, acceptance criteria).

General#220

Acceptance Criteria are used to:

A
Track hours
B
Define conditions for story acceptance
C
Assign team roles
D
Replace tests

AC define when a story is done from a user perspective and guide testing.

General#221

Which configuration concept ensures change happens in a controlled and authorized way?

A
Configuration database
B
Baseline
C
Audit
D
SVN

A baseline is a formally approved version that changes only via control procedures.

General#222

Tom updates local work back to the configuration server. This process is called:

A
Management
B
Check-in
C
Check-out
D
Baseline

Check-in uploads your local changes to the server repository.

General#223

Which ensures parallel updates do not overwrite each other?

A
Check-out
B
Baseline
C
Check-in
D
Synchronization control

Synchronization/merge control coordinates concurrent edits and resolves conflicts.

General#224

________ is the process to implement changes in a controllable manner following a predefined model.

A
Change Management
B
Modification Management
C
Update Management

Change Management governs how changes are proposed, assessed, approved, and implemented.

General#225

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing?

A
On-demand self-service
B
Limited scalability
C
Resource pooling
D
Broad network access

Employee name is a data attribute, not a performance indicator.

General#226

Agile prioritization often values:

A
Document completeness first
B
Working software and customer collaboration
C
Big upfront design
D
Strict contracts

Agile values working software and collaboration to deliver value.

General#227

In version control, Check-out means:

A
Taking latest from server to local
B
Pushing changes to server
C
Creating a baseline
D
Locking forever

Check-out/clone/pull brings repo content to your machine.

General#228

Configuration Audit verifies:

A
Only code formatting
B
Compliance of items to standards/baselines
C
HR policies
D
UI colors

Audits check that configuration items match their baselines and records.

General#229

SVN is a:

A
Configuration concept
B
Version control tool
C
Test tool
D
Modeling language

Apache Subversion (SVN) is a centralized VCS.

General#230

Scrum Master primarily serves:

A
Only Product Owner
B
The Scrum Team and organization
C
Only developers
D
Only customers

Scrum Master is a servant-leader for the team and the organization.

General#231

Sprint Retrospective focuses on:

A
Product features
B
Process improvement
C
Stakeholder demos
D
Contract review

Retro inspects how the last sprint went and plans improvements.

General#232

Which is a pull-based system?

A
Waterfall
B
Kanban
C
Stage-Gate
D
PERT

Kanban pulls work when capacity is available, respecting WIP limits.

General#233

WSJF (Weighted Shortest Job First) prioritizes by:

A
Cost only
B
Value/Cost (cost of delay over job size)
C
Random order
D
Age of items

WSJF orders work by highest cost of delay divided by job size.

General#234

Agile teams should be:

A
Component-siloed
B
Cross-functional and self-managing
C
Manager-directed only
D
QA-only

Teams contain all skills to deliver increments and manage their own work.

General#235

Burndown chart trending flat indicates:

A
Constant progress
B
No remaining work
C
Little or no work completed
D
Scope reduced

Flat line means the remaining work isn’t decreasing, signaling issues.

General#236

Refactoring aims to:

A
Add features
B
Improve design without changing behavior
C
Increase LOC
D
Remove tests

Refactoring cleans internal structure while preserving external behavior.

General#237

Which ceremony is time-boxed and for planning the next iteration?

A
Sprint Planning
B
Sprint Review
C
Backlog Refinement
D
Daily Scrum

Sprint Planning creates the Sprint Goal and plan.

General#238

Minimum marketable feature (MMF) is:

A
Partial backend only
B
A smallest set that delivers user-perceivable value
C
A prototype only
D
Only bug fixes

MMF is a coherent chunk that can be released for value.

General#239

A good Kanban WIP limit effect is:

A
More multitasking
B
Longer cycle times
C
Increased throughput and focus
D
More context switching

Lower WIP reduces wait and increases flow efficiency.

Introduction To Agile#240

Which agile methodology divides the development into sprint cycles, in which a Specified set of features are delivered? Choose from the following:

A
Extreme programming
B
SCRUM
C
Lean Software Development

Scrum uses time-boxed sprints delivering a potentially shippable increment.

Introduction To Agile#241

State true or false. During agile development more emphasize is given for documentation

A
FALSE
B
TRUE

Agile values working software over comprehensive documentation.

Introduction To Agile#242

__________ is an iterative and incremental approach that embraces principles of agile development, including continuous user/customer involvement.

A
Loop creation method
B
Increment Method
C
Static System Development Method
D
Dynamic System Development Method

DSDM is an iterative, incremental agile method with continuous user involvement.

Introduction To Agile#243

What are the roles in dynamic system development method? Choose from the following: Select one or more: a. System Analyst b. Scribe Facilitator c. Technical Coordinator

A
System Analyst
B
Scribe Facilitator
C
Technical Coordinator
D
Designer

DSDM roles include Scribe Facilitator and Technical Coordinator among others.

Introduction To Agile#244

_____ methodology focus on visualization flow a. Kanban b. Scrum c. DSDM

A
Kanban
B
Scrum
C
DSDM
D
Prototype

Kanban visualises workflow on boards and limits WIP to improve flow.

Introduction To Agile#245

Which of the following agile methodologies depends on the cohesiveness of the team and individual commitment of the team members?

A
Lean Software Development
B
Feature Driven Development
C
SCRUM
D
Extreme programming

XP relies on collective ownership and pair programming which demand strong individual commitment.

Introduction To Agile#246

From the options select the configuration items that are eligible for configuration management Select one or more: a. Source code document b. SRS c. Design Document

A
Source code document
B
SRS
C
Design Document
D
Test Report

All four — Test Report, Design Document, Source code, and SRS — are configuration items.

Introduction To Agile#247

________ is the process during which the changes of a system are implemented in a controllable manner by following a predefined model, with some reasonable modifications.

A
Change Management
B
Modification Management
C
Update Management

Change Management governs how changes are proposed, assessed, approved and implemented.

Introduction To Agile#248

Which is the software configuration concept that ensures that change should be done in a controlled and authorized environment

A
SVN
B
Audit
C
Baseline
D
Configuration database

A baseline is a formally approved version that changes only via controlled procedures.

Introduction To Agile#249

Tom and Peter works on the same project. Tom does his work and update the local copy back to the configuration management server. This process is called as

A
Management
B
Check-in
C
Check-out
D
Baseline

Check-in uploads local changes back to the version control server.

Introduction To Agile#250

____________ ensures that when two different people does the work and update parallelly, one should not over write the other

A
Baseline
B
Check-out
C
Check-in
D
Synchronization control

Synchronization control manages concurrent edits and prevents overwrites.

Introduction To Agile#251

Collaborative and co-operative approach among all the stake holders is important. This is a feature of the _______________ Agile Methodology

A
Lean Software Development
B
Scrum
C
Dynamic system development method

DSDM emphasises active user involvement and stakeholder collaboration.

Introduction To Agile#252

Which of these is not an agile methodology

A
SPIRAL
B
CRYSTAL
C
DSDM
D
SCRUM

The Spiral model is an SDLC model, not an Agile methodology.

Introduction To Agile#253

Scrum divides the development into short cycles called as ______

A
Spiral Cycles
B
Sprint Cycles
C
Risk Cycles
D
Stable Cycles

Scrum uses time-boxed Sprint Cycles.

Introduction To Agile#254

________ methodology is useful when the client requirements are not clear and stable

A
Agile Methodology
B
Spiral Methodology
C
Prototype Methodology
D
Waterfall Methodology

Agile accommodates evolving requirements through iterative delivery.

Introduction To Agile#255

DSDM is iterative and incremental

A
True
B
False

DSDM delivers in increments and iterates for refinement.

Key Topics to Study

Based on our question bank analysis, master these concepts to score high in Agile & DevOps.

AgileDevOpsDevSecOpsScrumSprintPipelineContinuousJenkins
Preparation Tip

"Focus on understanding the logic behind pseudocode loops and selection statements, as they form the bulk of technical assessments."